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350-401 - Implementing Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (350-401 ENCOR) Practice Tests 2023 | ITCertMagic
NEW QUESTION # 46
Drag and drop the descriptions from the left onto the QoS components they describe on the right.
Answer:
Explanation:
Explanation
Graphical user interface, text, application, email Description automatically generated
NEW QUESTION # 47
What is the output of this code?
- A. CISCO
- B. username Cisco
- C. get_credentials
- D. username
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 48
Which feature Is used to propagate ARP broadcast, and link-local frames across a Cisco SD-Access fabric to address connectivity needs for silent hosts that require reception of traffic to start communicating?
- A. Native Fabric Multicast
- B. Multisite Fabric
- C. Layer 2 Flooding
- D. SOA Transit
Answer: C
Explanation:
Layer2 Flooding
Cisco SD-Access fabric provides many optimizations to improve unicast traffic flow, and to reduce the unnecessary flooding of data such as broadcasts. But, for some traffic and applications, it may be desirable to enable broadcast forwarding within the fabric.
By default, this is disabled in the Cisco SD-Access architecture. If broadcast, Link local multicast and Arp flooding is required, it must be specifically enabled on a per-subnet basis using Layer 2 flooding feature.
Layer 2 flooding can be used to forward broadcasts for certain traffic and application types which may require leveraging of Layer 2 connectivity, such as silent hosts, card readers, door locks, etc.
NEW QUESTION # 49
An engineer creates the configuration below. Drag and drop the authentication methods from the left into the order of priority on the right. Not all options are used.
Answer:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 50
Drag and drop the threat defense solutions from the left onto their descriptions on the right.
Answer:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 51
A network engineer is adding an additional 10Gps link to an exiting 2x10Gps LACP-based LAG to augment its capacity. Network standards require a bundle interface to be taken out of service if one of its member links goes down, and the new link must be added with minimal impact to the production network. Drag and drop the tasks that the engineer must perform from the left into the sequence on the right. Not all options are used.
Answer:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 52
Which statement about LISP encapsulation in an EIGRP OTP implementation is true?
- A. OTP uses LISP encapsulation to obtain routes from neighbors
- B. OTP maintains the LISP control plane
- C. LISP learns the next hop
- D. OTP uses LISP encapsulation for dynamic multipoint tunneling
Answer: B
Explanation:
The EIGRP Over the Top solution can be used to ensure connectivity between disparate EIGRP
sites. This feature uses EIGRP on the control plane and Locator ID Separation Protocol (LISP)
encapsulation on the data plane to route traffic across the underlying WAN architecture. EIGRP is
used to distribute routes between customer edge (CE) devices within the network, and the traffic
forwarded across the WAN architecture is LISP encapsulated.
EIGRP OTP only uses LISP for the data plane, EIGRP is still used for the control plane. Therefore
we cannot say OTP uses LISP encapsulation for dynamic multipoint tunneling as this requires
encapsulating both data and control plane traffic -> Answer 'OTP uses LISP encapsulation for
dynamic multipoint tunneling' is not correct.
In OTP, EIGRP serves as the replacement for LISP control plane protocols (therefore EIGRP will
learn the next hop, not LISP -> Answer 'LISP learns the next hop' is not correct). Instead of doing
dynamic EID-to-RLOC mappings in native LISP-mapping services, EIGRP routers running OTP over
a service provider cloud create targeted sessions, use the IP addresses provided by the service
provider as RLOCs, and exchange routes as EIDs. Let's take an example:
If R1 and R2 ran OTP to each other, R1 would learn about the network 10.0.2.0/24 from R2
through EIGRP, treat the prefix 10.0.2.0/24 as an EID prefix, and take the advertising next hop
198.51.100.62 as the RLOC for this EID prefix. Similarly, R2 would learn from R1 about the
network 10.0.1.0/24 through EIGRP, treat the prefix 10.0.1.0/24 as an EID prefix, and take the
advertising next hop 192.0.2.31 as the RLOC for this EID prefix. On both routers, this information
would be used to populate the LISP mapping tables. Whenever a packet from 10.0.1.0/24 to
10.0.2.0/24 would arrive at R1, it would use its LISP mapping tables just like in ordinary LISP to
discover that the packet has to be LISP encapsulated and tunneled toward 198.51.100.62, and
vice versa. The LISP data plane is reused in OTP and does not change; however, the native LISP
mapping and resolving mechanisms are replaced by EIGRP.
NEW QUESTION # 53
A customer has recently implemented a new wireless infrastructure using WLC-5520S at a site directly next to a large commercial airport Users report that they intermittently lose Wi-Fi connectivity, and troubleshooting reveals it is due to frequent channel changes Which two actions fix this issue? (Choose two)
- A. Configure channels on the UNII-2 and the Extended UNII-2 sub-bands of the 5 Ghz band only
- B. Enable DFS channels because they are immune to radar interference
- C. Disable DFS channels to prevent interference writ) Doppler radar
- D. Remove UNII-2 and Extended UNII-2 channels from the 5 Ghz channel list
- E. Restore the OCA default settings because this automatically avoids channel interference
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
Explanation
In the 5GHz spectrum some of the channels used by 802.11 are subject to Dynamic Frequency Selection (DFS) requirements. This is due to our clients coexistence with other RF technologies such as Maritime, Aviation and Weather RADAR.
Dynamic Frequency Selection (DFS) is the process of detecting radar signals that must be protected against interference from 5.0 GHz (802.11a/h) radios, and upon detection switching the operating frequency of the 5.0 GHz (802.11a/h) radio to one that is not interfering with the radar systems.
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/routers/access/wireless/software/guide/RadioChannelDFS.pdf Although DFS helps reduce interference with radar systems but "DFS channels" refer to the 5GHz channels that require DFS check. In other words, DFS channels are channels that may interfere with radar signal.
Therefore we should disable these DFS channels -> Answer C is correct.
UNII-2 (5.250-5.350 GHz and 5.470-5.725 GHz) which contains channels 52, 56, 60, 64, 100, 104, 108, 112,
116, 120, 124, 128, 132, 136, and 140 are permitted in the United States, but shared with radar systems.
Therefore, APs operating on UNII-2 channels are required to use Dynamic Frequency Selection (DFS) to avoid interfering with radar signals. If an AP detects a radar signal, it must immediately stop using that channel and randomly pick a new channel.
Reference:
https://documentation.meraki.com/MR/WiFi_Basics_and_Best_Practices/Channel_Planning_Best_Practices
NEW QUESTION # 54
Which technology does VXLAN use to provide segmentation for Layer 2 and Layer 3 traffic?
- A. bridge domain
- B. VRF
- C. VLAN
- D. VNI
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 55
An engineer configures GigabitEthernet 0/1 for VRRP group 115. The router must assume the primary role when it has the highest priority in the group. Which command set is required to complete this task?
- A. Option C
- B. Option B
- C. Option A
- D. Option D
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 56
How does Cisco Trustsec enable more access controls for dynamic networking environments and data centers?
- A. classifies traffic based on the contextual identity of the endpoint rather than its IP address correct
- B. assigns a VLAN to the endpoint
- C. classifies traffic based on advanced application recognition
- D. uses flexible NetFlow
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Cisco TrustSec solution simplifies the provisioning and management of network access control through the use of software-defined segmentation to classify network traffic and enforce policies for more flexible access controls. Traffic classification is based on endpoint identity, not IP address, enabling policy change without net-work redesign.
NEW QUESTION # 57
Which router is elected the IGMP Querier when more than one router is in the same LAN segment?
- A. The router with the lowest IP address
- B. The router with the highest IP address
- C. The router with the shortest uptime
- D. The router with the longest uptime
Answer: A
Explanation:
Query messages are used to elect the IGMP querier as follows: 1. When IGMPv2 devices start, they each multicast a general query message to the all-systems group address of 224.0.0.1 with their interface address in the source IP address field of the message. 2. When an IGMPv2 device receives a general query message, the device compares the source IP address in the message with its own interface address. The device with the lowest IP address on the subnet is elected the IGMP querier. 3. All devices (excluding the querier) start the query timer, which is reset whenever a general query message is received from the IGMP querier. If the query timer expires, it is assumed that the IGMP querier has gone down, and the election process is performed again to elect a new IGMP querier.
NEW QUESTION # 58
Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the correct routing protocol types on the right.
Answer:
Explanation:
Explanation
OSPF: SEGMENT, LINK STATE, TABLES
EIGRP: UNEQUAL PATH, DISTANCE VECTOR, METRIC
NEW QUESTION # 59
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the JSON syntax that is formed the data?
- A. {'Name'':''Bob johnon':''Age: 75,''Alive: true, FavoriteFoods;[Cereal, Mustard';''Onions}}
- B. {'Name'': 'Bob johnon','Age': 75,'Alive': true,''FavoriteFoods': 'Cereal';'Mustard','Onions'}}
- C. {'Name'':''Bob johnon':''Age': 75 ''Alive'': true,''Favorite Foods';[''Cereal';''Mustard';''Onions'}}
- D. {'Name'';''Bob johnon';''Age': Sevenfive,''Alive'': true,''FavoriteFoods';[''Cereal';''Mustard';''Onions'}}
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 60
Refer to me exhibit.
Refer to the exhibit. External users require HTTP connectivity to an internal company web server that is listening on TCP port 8080. Which command set accomplishes this requirement?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
- A. Option B
- B. Option A
- C. Option D
- D. Option C
- E. Option E
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 61
What does this EEM applet event accomplish?
"event snmp oid 1.3.6.1.3.7.1.5.1.2.4.2.9 get-type next entry-op g entry-val 75 poll-interval 5"
- A. Upon the value reaching 75%, a SNMP event is generated and sent to the trap server.
- B. It issues email when the value is greater than 75% for five polling cycles.
- C. It reads an SNMP variable, and when the value exceeds 75% for live polling cycles.
- D. It presents a SNMP variable that can be interrogated.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
EEM offers the ability to monitor events and take informational or corrective action when the monitored events occur or reach a threshold. An EEM policy is an entity that defines an event and the actions to be taken when that event occurs. There are two types of EEM policies: an applet or a script. An applet is a simple form of policy that is defined within the CLI configuration.
To specify the event criteria for an Embedded Event Manager (EEM) applet that is run by sampling Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) object identifier values, use the event snmp command in applet configuration mode.
event snmp oid oid-value get-type {exact | next} entry-op entryvalue
[exit-comb {or | and}] [exit-op operator exit-timevalue]
poll-interval poll-int-value
+ oid: Specifies the SNMP object identifier (object ID)
+ get-type: Specifies the type of SNMP get operation to be applied to the object ID specified by the oid-value argument.
- next - Retrieves the object ID that is the alphanumeric successor to the object ID specified by the oid-value argument.
+ entry-op: Compares the contents of the current object ID with the entry value using the specified operator. If there is a match, an event is triggered and event monitoring is disabled until the exit criteria are met.
+ entry-val: Specifies the value with which the contents of the current object ID are compared to decide if an SNMP event should be raised.
+ exit-op: Compares the contents of the current object ID with the exit value using the specified operator. If there is a match, an event is triggered and event monitoring is reenabled.
+ poll-interval: Specifies the time interval between consecutive polls (in seconds) Reference: https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/12_3t/12_3t4/feature/guide/gtioseem.html Question 2
NEW QUESTION # 62
Refer to the exhibit.
Which type of antenna does the radiation pattern represent?
- A. omnidirectional
- B. Yagi
- C. multidirectional
- D. directional patch
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
A Yagi antenna is formed by driving a simple antenna, typically a dipole or dipolelike antenna, and shaping the beam using a well-chosen series of non-driven elements whose length and spacing are tightly controlled.
NEW QUESTION # 63
Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the appropriate infrastructure deployment types on the right.
Answer:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 64
Refer to the exhibit.
Which JSON syntax is derived from this data?
- A. Option B
- B. Option A
- C. Option C
- D. Option D
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 65
Refer to the exhibit.
A network engineer configures OSPF and reviews the router configuration. Which interface or interface or interface are able to establish OSPF adjacency?
- A. only GigabitEthernet0/1
- B. Gigabit Ethernet0/0 and GigabitEthemet0/1
- C. only GigabttEthernet0/0
- D. GigabitEthemet0/1 and GigabitEthernet0/1.40
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 66
What does Call Admission Control require the client to send in order to reserve the bandwidth?
- A. VoIP media session awareness
- B. traffic specification
- C. Wi-Fi multimedia
- D. SIP flow information
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 67 
Refer to the exhibit Drag and drop the snippets into the RESTCONF request to form the request that returns this response Not all options are used
Answer:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 68
Refer to the exhibit.
Which configuration must be applied to the HQ router to set up a GRE tunnel between the HQ and BR routers?
- A. Option B
- B. Option A
- C. Option C
- D. Option D
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
https://community.cisco.com/t5/networking-documents/how-to-configure-a-gre-tunnel/ta-p/3131970#toc-hId--14
NEW QUESTION # 69
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer configures monitoring on SW1 and enters the show command to verify operation. What does the output confirm?
- A. RSPAN session 1 monitors activity on VLAN 50 of a remote switch
- B. SPAN session 2 monitors all traffic entering and exiting port FastEthernet 0/15.
- C. SPAN session 2 only monitors egress traffic exiting port FastEthernet 0/14.
- D. RSPAN session 1 is incompletely configured for monitoring
Answer: D
Explanation:
SW1 has been configured with the following commands:
SW1(config)#monitor session 1 source remote vlan 50 SW1(config)#monitor session 2 source interface fa0/14 SW1(config)#monitor session 2 destination interface fa0/15
The session 1 on SW1 was configured for Remote SPAN (RSPAN) while session 2 was configured for local SPAN. For RSPAN we need to configure the destination port to complete the configuration.
Note: In fact we cannot create such a session like session 1 because if we only configure -Source RSPAN VLAN 50 || (with the command -monitor session 1 source remote vlan 50 ||) then we will receive a -Type: Remote Source Session || (not -Remote Destination Session ||).
NEW QUESTION # 70
......
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