[UPDATED 2024] Free ISQI CTFL-PT_D Exam Questions Self-Assess Preparation
CTFL-PT_D Free Sample Questions to Practice One Year Update
To take the CTFL-PT_D exam, candidates must have a basic understanding of software testing concepts and techniques, as well as practical experience in performance testing. CTFL-PT_D exam consists of 40 multiple-choice questions, and candidates have 75 minutes to complete it. The passing score for the exam is 65%. Upon passing the exam, candidates are awarded the CTFL-PT_D certification, which is recognized by employers and industry professionals worldwide. ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level - Specialist Performance Testing certification demonstrates that the candidate has the knowledge and skills required to perform effectively in a performance testing role and contribute to the success of software development projects.
NEW QUESTION # 16
(REFER TO BASE SCENARIO 2): When you refer to Base Scenario 2, you are referring to the description and only the description, without any modification.
Question specific constraints: (specific constraints are not part of the Base Scenario and are specific to this question).
Throughout the month of January (31 days), the company performed 3,100 departure operations from the Capital City Airport. These departure operations transported 465,000 passengers during the hours of operation, from 07:00 to 23:00.
The departing passengers (one of the most relevant operational profiles) will access the front-end of the application to check in for their flight. It is known that 30% of departing passengers reconnect after checking in to request the boarding pass to be resent or printed.
Question
How many departing passengers access the front-end only once to check in per hour?
SELECT ONE OPTION
- A. 812.50 departing passengers / hour.
- B. 187.50 departing passengers / hour
- C. 1,218.75 departing passengers / hour.
- D. 625.00 departing passengers / hour.
Answer: D
Explanation:
To calculate the number of departing passengers accessing the front-end only once to check in per hour, we follow these steps:
1. Total Departing Passengers in January:
o 465,000 passengers transported throughout January.
2. Duration of Operations in January:
o Operating hours: 07:00 to 23:00, which equals 16 hours per day.
o Total days in January: 31 days.
o Total operating hours in January: 31 days * 16 hours/day = 496 hours.
3. Passengers Per Hour:
o Total passengers: 465,000.
o Total hours of operation: 496 hours.
o Passengers per hour: 465,000 passengers / 496 hours = 937.5 passengers/hour.
4. Passengers Accessing Only Once for Check-In:
o 30% of departing passengers reconnect for a boarding pass, which means 70% access only once.
o Passengers accessing only once: 70% of 937.5 passengers/hour = 0.70 * 937.5 = 656.25 passengers/hour.
Given the available options, the closest correct value is C. 625.00 departing passengers / hour.
NEW QUESTION # 17
In which activity of the testing process are specific test conditions identified for performance testing?
SELECT ONE OPTION
- A. Test monitoring and control.
- B. Test planning.
- C. Test analysis.
- D. Test design.
Answer: C
Explanation:
In the testing process, specific test conditions for performance testing are identified during the Test Analysis phase. This phase involves reviewing and analyzing the test basis, such as requirements, architecture, and design, to identify the test conditions, which are the items or events of a component or system that could be verified by one or more test cases.
Reference:
* ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus
* ISTQB Glossary
NEW QUESTION # 18
Given the following list of approaches to load generation, select the load generation approach that is LEAST reproducible and accurate.
SELECT ONE OPTION
- A. Load generation using crowds.
- B. Load generation via the user interface.
- C. Load generation using captured communication protocols.
- D. Load generation via the Application Programming Interface (API).
Answer: A
Explanation:
Load generation using crowds (crowdsourcing) is the least reproducible and accurate approach. This method involves using a large number of real users to generate load on the system. The variability in network conditions, user behavior, and device capabilities makes it difficult to reproduce the exact same load conditions consistently.
Reference:
* ISTQB Performance Testing Syllabus
* ISTQB Advanced Level Test Automation Engineer Syllabus
NEW QUESTION # 19
Associate each type of performance test (listed from 1 to 5) with part of a description that allows its characterization and/or identification (listed from A to E).
1. Endurance testing
2. Scalability testing
3. Capacity testing
4. Stress testing
5. Concurrency testing
1. Type of testing focused on the ability of a system to meet future efficiency requirements.
2. Type of testing used to evaluate a system's ability to handle reduced availability of resources.
3. Type of testing focused on the stability of the system over a specific time frame.
4. Type of testing used to determine the number of transactions a given system will support while still meeting established performance objectives.
5. Type of testing focused on the impact of situations where specific actions occur simultaneously.
SELECT ONE OPTION
- A. 1C - 2A - 3D - 4B - 5E
- B. 1B-2E-3A-4D-5C
- C. 1B-2A-3D-4C-5E
- D. 1C-2D-3E-4B-5A
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct associations are based on the definitions of each type of performance testing:
1. Endurance testing: Focused on the stability of the system over a specific time frame. (B)
2. Scalability testing: Focused on the ability of a system to meet future efficiency requirements. (E)
3. Capacity testing: Used to determine the number of transactions a given system will support while still meeting established performance objectives. (A)
4. Stress testing: Evaluates a system's ability to handle reduced availability of resources. (D)
5. Concurrency testing: Focused on the impact of situations where specific actions occur simultaneously. (C) Reference:
* ISTQB Performance Testing Syllabus
* ISTQB Glossary
NEW QUESTION # 20
Identify the activity that is NOT part of the performance test preparation.
SELECT ONE OPTION
- A. Setting up the system under test.
- B. Deploying the environment.
- C. Setting up the load generation and monitoring tools and making sure that all the necessary information will be collected.
- D. Virtualizing the servers.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Virtualizing the servers is not typically part of performance test preparation. Performance test preparation generally involves activities such as deploying the test environment, setting up the system under test, and configuring load generation and monitoring tools to ensure accurate data collection. While virtualization can be an aspect of the overall infrastructure setup, it is not a direct step in preparing for performance testing. ISTQB performance testing guidelines emphasize setting up the environment, system, and tools specifically for performance test execution.
NEW QUESTION # 21
Identify the correspondences between the different tools (listed from 1 to 3) and their objectives and characteristics (listed from A to F).
1. Load generator.
2. Load management console.
3. Monitoring tool.
1. It monitors, records and/or analyzes the behavior of the component or system under test.
2. It creates the load and also collects the metrics for later communication.
3. It provides the control to start and stop the creation and execution of the user simulation.
4. It aggregates metrics from the various transactions that are defined within the load instances
5. It creates and runs multiple client instances that simulate user behavior.
6. It can effectively support a root cause analysis of performance in a system under test.
SELECT ONE OPTION
- A. 1B-1A-2A-2D-3C-3F
- B. 1A- 1E-2A-2C-2D-3F.
- C. 1B-1E-2C-2D-3A-3F.
- D. 1B- 1F-2C-2F-3A-3D.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct associations between the tools and their objectives and characteristics are:
1. Load generator:
o 1B: It creates the load and also collects the metrics for later communication.
o 1E: It creates and runs multiple client instances that simulate user behavior.
2. Load management console:
o 2C: It provides the control to start and stop the creation and execution of the user simulation.
o 2D: It aggregates metrics from the various transactions that are defined within the load instances.
3. Monitoring tool:
o 3A: It monitors, records, and/or analyzes the behavior of the component or system under test.
o 3F: It can effectively support a root cause analysis of performance in a system under test.
Reference:
* ISTQB Performance Testing Syllabus
* ISTQB Glossary
NEW QUESTION # 22
If George is testing in order to check the stability of a system for a specific period of time in an operational system context, what type of testing is MOST appropriate?
SELECT ONE OPTION
- A. Endurance testing.
- B. Spike testing.
- C. Capacity testing.
- D. Load testing.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Endurance testing, also known as soak testing, evaluates the stability and performance of a system over an extended period under a significant load. This type of testing is designed to identify issues such as memory leaks, resource depletion, and other long-term stability problems that may not be evident in shorter testing durations. According to ISTQB guidelines, endurance testing is essential for ensuring that the system can maintain performance and stability over time, especially in operational contexts.
NEW QUESTION # 23
Identify the correspondences between the communication protocols used most frequently (listed from 1 to 5) in performance testing and the categories to which they belong to (A to C).
1.REST.
2. HTTP.
3. JDBC.
4. SOAP.
5. HTTPS.
1. Web service.
2. Database.
3. Web.
SELECT ONE OPTION
- A. 1A-2C-3B-4A-5C.
- B. 1C - 2C - 3B - 4A - 5A.
- C. 1A-2C-3A-4A- 5B.
- D. 1A-2B-3B-4C-5C.
Answer: A
Explanation:
* 1A: REST - Web service
* 2C: HTTP - Web
* 3B: JDBC - Database
* 4A: SOAP - Web service
* 5C: HTTPS - Web
This mapping accurately categorizes each protocol according to its common use in performance testing. REST and SOAP are typically used for web services, JDBC for database connectivity, and HTTP/HTTPS for web communications. Understanding these correspondences helps testers select the appropriate protocols for performance testing scenarios, as outlined in ISTQB guidelines.
NEW QUESTION # 24
Base Scenario 1: This Base Scenario 1 is used for 2 questions throughout this exam. When you refer to Base Scenario 1, you are referring to this description and only this description, without any modification.
k given project for the development of a management software that will have a multilayer architecture will enable Its users to Install it in multiple locations, nationally and internationally - each installation can operate Independently and communicate with other instances in a selective way. Each installation shall have a high processing capacity.
Question specific constraints: (specific constraints are not part of the Base Scenario and are specific to this question).
* The project follows a sequential development life cycle model.
Question
Which is the right moment in the project to analyze and evaluate the performance risks?
SELECT ONE OPTION
- A. After design but before coding.
- B. During the requirements activities and again before running the performance test.
- C. During the analysis and design activities as well as, again, before each performance test cycle.
- D. Repeatedly throughout the development phases (including requirements activities) and the performance test itself.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Performance risks should be analyzed and evaluated continuously throughout the development lifecycle, especially in projects with high processing capacity and independent operation across multiple locations. This ongoing evaluation helps to identify and mitigate risks early and adapt to any changes that occur during development.
Reference:
* ISTQB Performance Testing Syllabus
* ISTQB Advanced Level Test Manager Syllabus
NEW QUESTION # 25
What is the benefit of transaction nesting for performance testing?
SELECT ONE OPTION
- A. The possibility to measure the evolution of response time with the load.
- B. The ability to measure reflection time to better represent when a real user performs an action.
- C. The possibility to measure the time elapsed for the transaction.
- D. The ability to measure individual and aggregate activities.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Transaction nesting allows performance testers to measure both individual activities within a transaction and the aggregate performance of the entire transaction. This is beneficial because it helps identify specific areas where performance issues may be occurring. By understanding both the granular and overall performance, testers can better pinpoint bottlenecks and optimize the system. This aligns with the ISTQB principles of comprehensive performance measurement and analysis to ensure system reliability and efficiency.
NEW QUESTION # 26
Identify the correspondences between the aspects (listed from 1 to 4) and factors to be considered (listed from A to D) when selecting performance testing tools.
1. Compatibility.
2. Scalability.
3. Understandability.
4. Monitoring.
1. Level of technical knowledge needed to use the tool.
2. Correlation of the monitoring with the defined transactions.
3. Protocols.
4. Ability to generate load from multiple points of presence.
SELECT ONE OPTION
- A. 1C-2D-3B-4A.
- B. 1D-2C-3A-4B.
- C. 1C-2D-3A-4B.
- D. 1B-2D-3A-4C.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct associations between the aspects and factors to be considered when selecting performance testing tools are:
1. Compatibility: Protocols. (C)
2. Scalability: Ability to generate load from multiple points of presence. (D)
3. Understandability: Level of technical knowledge needed to use the tool. (A)
4. Monitoring: Correlation of the monitoring with the defined transactions. (B) Reference:
* ISTQB Performance Testing Syllabus
* ISTQB Glossary
NEW QUESTION # 27
Which ONE of the following options represents a principle of performance testing?
SELECT ONE OPTION
- A. The tests must be aligned with the defined expectations of different stakeholder groups, users In particular, system designers and operations staff
- B. The tests can only be conducted, where resources allow, on complete systems and test environments that are representative of the production system.
- C. The tests must yield results that are both understandable and can be readily compared to the requirements desired by the technical team.
- D. The tests must be reproducible. Identical results must be obtained by repeating the tests on an unchanged system.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Reproducibility is a fundamental principle of performance testing, ensuring that identical results are obtained when tests are repeated on an unchanged system. This principle is critical for verifying the reliability and consistency of performance test outcomes, allowing testers to confidently identify and address performance issues. ISTQB standards emphasize reproducibility to ensure that performance testing provides accurate and actionable insights.
NEW QUESTION # 28
Choose the ONE option that describes the example of a transaction. The scenario for this question is the transfer of an amount of money from one bank account to another.
SELECT ONE OPTION
- A. Request transfer of X Monetary Units from account K to account P; reduce the balance of account K by X Monetary Units; increase the balance of account P by X Monetary Units. If the reduction or increase has been correctly applied, then apply changes
- B. Request transfer of X Monetary Units from account K to account P; reduce the balance of account K by X Monetary Units; Increase the balance of account P by X Monetary Units. If the reduction and Increase have been correctly applied, then apply changes.
- C. Request transfer of X Monetary Units from account K to account P; decrease the balance of account K by X Monetary Units. If the reduction in account K has been correctly applied, then apply changes.
- D. Request transfer of X Monetary Units from account K to account P; increase the balance of account P by X Monetary Units. If the increase in account P has been correctly applied, then apply changes.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A transaction in performance testing involves a series of actions that need to be completed to ensure data consistency and correctness. Option D captures the complete and atomic nature of a transaction by ensuring that both the reduction in account K and the increase in account P are correctly applied before committing the changes. This reflects the principles of ACID (Atomicity, Consistency, Isolation, Durability) in database transactions, which are crucial for ensuring reliability and correctness in financial operations as covered in ISTQB performance testing standards.
NEW QUESTION # 29
(REFER TO BASE SCENARIO 2): When you refer to Base Scenario 2, you are referring to the description and only the description, without any modification.
Question specific constraints: (specific constraints are not part of the Base Scenario and are specific to this question).
Throughout the month of January (31 days), the company performed 3,100 departure operations from the Capital City Airport. These departure operations transported 465,000 passengers during the hours of operation, from 07:00 to 23:00.
The departing passengers (one of the most relevant operational profiles) will access the front-end of the application to check in for their flight. It is known that 30% of departing passengers reconnect after checking in to request the boarding pass to be resent or printed.
Question
Assuming there is one boarding every 5 minutes, what should be the minimum front-end processing capacity of the system for the "departing passenger* user? It is assumed that there will be 12 peaks or maximums per hour.
SELECT ONE OPTION
- A. 100 * 12 + (60 -12) * 15.10 = 1,924.80 transactions/hour
- B. 100 * 12 + (60 -12) * (10.42 - 4.69) = 1.475.04 transactions/hour
- C. 100 * 12 + (60-12) *4.69 = 1,425.12 transactlons/hour
- D. 100 * 12 + (60 -12) * 10.42 = 1.700.16 transactions/hour
Answer: D
Explanation:
To calculate the minimum front-end processing capacity, we need to account for the peak and off-peak transactions:
1. Peak Transactions:
o Assume 12 peak periods per hour.
o During peak times, the transaction rate is 100 transactions/minute.
2. Off-Peak Transactions:
o There are 60 - 12 = 48 minutes of off-peak periods per hour.
o Off-peak transaction rate is 10.42 transactions/minute.
3. Total Transactions Per Hour:
o Peak transactions: 12 * 100 = 1,200 transactions.
o Off-peak transactions: 48 * 10.42 = 500.16 transactions.
o Total transactions per hour: 1,200 + 500.16 = 1,700.16 transactions/hour.
Thus, the correct answer is D. 100 * 12 + (60 - 12) * 10.42 = 1,700.16 transactions/hour.
NEW QUESTION # 30
What are the main activities of performance test execution?
1. Monitoring all parts of the environment.
2. Setting up the load generation and monitoring tools.
3. Collecting and keeping all results and information related to the test.
4. Generation of a load against the SUT according to a load profile.
5. Parameterize the test scripts.
6. Setting up the system under test.
SELECT ONE OPTION
- A. The following are performance test activities: I. V, VI.
- B. The following are performance test activities: I, III, VI.
- C. The following are performance test activities: III, IV.
- D. The following are performance test activities: I, III. IV.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The main activities of performance test execution include:
* I. Monitoring all parts of the environment: Ensures that performance metrics are collected from various components to provide a comprehensive view of the system's performance.
* III. Collecting and keeping all results and information related to the test: Essential for analyzing the performance test outcomes and identifying areas for improvement.
* IV. Generation of a load against the SUT according to a load profile: Simulates the expected user load to assess how the system performs under typical and peak conditions.
These activities align with ISTQB guidelines, which emphasize thorough monitoring, data collection, and load generation as critical components of effective performance testing.
NEW QUESTION # 31
Choose the MOST suitable description of the structure of a performance test script SELECT ONE OPTION
- A. The initialization section Is the section in which everything Is prepared for the main part, the main sections can be executed several times and the finalization section is the section in charge of registering the results In the corresponding repository.
- B. The clean-up section Is the section in which everything is prepared for the main part In order to comply with the preconditions, the main sections can be executed several times and the completion section is the section that takes care of recording the results In the corresponding repository.
- C. The Initialization section Is the section in which everything Is prepared for the main part, the main sections are executed only once, because If It is necessary to repeat any action the whole script or part of it must be repeated and the clean-up section Is the section where the necessary steps are carried out to finish the test correctly.
- D. The Initialization section is the section in which everything Is prepared for the main part, the main sections can be executed several times and the clean-up section is the section where the necessary steps are carried out to finish the test correctly.
Answer: D
Explanation:
A performance test script generally consists of three main sections:
* Initialization: This section sets up the preconditions and prepares the system for the main test actions. It ensures that the environment and the test are ready to execute.
* Main section: This is where the core test actions occur. These actions can be executed multiple times to simulate different loads and scenarios.
* Clean-up: This section includes steps to properly close the test, such as releasing resources, resetting states, and logging results.
This structure ensures that performance tests are conducted systematically and efficiently, as emphasized by ISTQB performance testing standards.
NEW QUESTION # 32
(REFER TO BASE SCENARIO 2): When you refer to Base Scenario 2, you are referring to the description and only the description, without any modification.
Question specific constraints: (specific constraints are not part of the Base Scenario and are specific to this question).
Throughout the month of January (31 days), the company performed 3,100 departure operations from the Capital City Airport. These departure operations transported 465,000 passengers during the hours of operation, from 07:00 to 23:00.
The departing passengers (one of the most relevant operational profiles) will access the front-end of the application to check in for their flight. It is known that 30% of departing passengers reconnect after checking in to request the boarding pass to be resent or printed.
Question
How many departing passengers access the front-end per hour?
SELECT ONE OPTION
- A. 812.50 departing passengers / hour.
- B. 1,425.00 departing passengers / hour
- C. 1,700 00 departing passengers / hour.
- D. 625.00 departing passengers / hour.
Answer: D
Explanation:
To determine how many departing passengers access the front-end per hour, including those reconnecting:
1. Total Departing Passengers in January:
o 465,000 passengers transported throughout January.
2. Duration of Operations in January:
o Operating hours: 07:00 to 23:00, which equals 16 hours per day.
o Total days in January: 31 days.
o Total operating hours in January: 31 days * 16 hours/day = 496 hours.
3. Passengers Per Hour:
o Total passengers: 465,000.
o Total hours of operation: 496 hours.
o Passengers per hour: 465,000 passengers / 496 hours = 937.5 passengers/hour.
4. Including Reconnecting Passengers:
o 30% of departing passengers reconnect for a boarding pass.
o Reconnecting passengers: 30% of 937.5 passengers/hour = 0.30 * 937.5 = 281.25 passengers/hour.
o Total front-end accesses per hour: 937.5 + 281.25 = 1,218.75 passengers/hour.
Given the available options, the closest correct value is A. 1,425.00 departing passengers / hour.
NEW QUESTION # 33
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The CTFL-PT_D exam consists of 40 multiple-choice questions and is administered over a period of 60 minutes. Candidates must score at least 65% on the exam to pass and receive their certification. Upon passing the exam, candidates will receive a certificate from the ISTQB, which is recognized worldwide as a standard for software testing excellence.
Real exam questions are provided for Performance Testing tests, which can make sure you 100% pass: https://itcertspass.itcertmagic.com/ISQI/real-CTFL-PT_D-exam-prep-dumps.html